FrequencyOC

So we had a wonderful little discussion last night on different translation theories. The question arose of in Revelation 11:15 the NKJV (and KJV) has the word "Kingdoms" while the NIV version has written "Kingdom". I promised to do my due diligence and here it is. Of the 8 translations I read, only the NKJV translates it as "Kingdoms". But what is most important to me is what does the Greek say. Below I have pasted the verse in Greek. There are 4 rows, the first two are the Greek Version, the third line is the english translation, and the 4th line is how to intrepret the original greek. For the word "Kingdom(s) we see the Greek word is NFSN. Noun, Feminine, Singular, Nominative. We see earlier in the verse the word voices. NFPN. Noun, Feminine, Plural, Nomanative. That is why in this version voices is plural and not written as "voice". So in my opinion in this instance the word is best translated Kingdom, singularly. However we must remember that in context we are talking about the united Kingdoms of the world. So is one better than the other, in my opinion, nope.

Also i did research on the temple seen in chapter 11. Here is an excerpt from a commentary that explains everything.
The temple here will be constructed so that orthodox Jews can offer sacrifices according to the Mosaic Law in the period in the first half of the seven-year period known as Daniel’s 70th week. At the beginning of the 42-month Great Tribulation, however, the sacrifices will stop and the temple will be desecrated and become a shrine for the world ruler of the Great Tribulation who will put an idol in it and proclaim himself to be God (cf. Dan. 9:27; 12:11; 2 Thes. 2:4; Rev. 13:14-15).